Originally posted by Mr.S.Marbo
Originally posted by philologus
But..If the UK Home Office stats show MORE violent Crime in the UK than US how can an increase in gun ownership be linked to increase in violent crime? The lethality of the encounter, yes. The frequency, No.
I don\'t know if they do show more violent crime than in the US. I don\'t know what the US figures were based on.
For example the UK report you quote takes into account crime that was not reported to the police. Did the US report take that into account?
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Yes, the report shows its methodology and method of estimating unreported crime as well as crime for agencies reporting less than 12 months of data, all the exceptions are listed by state with independent explanations of each.
Did you know the UK figures class some crimes where the victim received no injury at all as violent? Do the US figures include crimes where no injury was received and class them as \"violent\"?
Yes, they do, from the report: \"Violent crime is composed of four offenses: murder and nonnegligent manslaughter, forcible rape, robbery, and aggravated assault. According to the Uniform Crime Reporting (UCR) Program\'s definition, violent crimes involve force or threat of force.\"
If you look at each definition of the four \"Violent Crimes\" you see that :\" Attempted aggravated assault that involves the display of-or threat to use-a gun, knife, or other weapon is included in this crime category because serious personal injury would likely result if the assault were completed. When aggravated assault and larceny-theft occur together, the offense falls under the category of robbery.\"
For \"robbery\" : \"(UCR)...defines robbery as the taking or attempting to take anything of value from the care, custody, or control of a person or persons by force or threat of force or violence and/or by putting the victim in fear.\"
Again no injury necessary for reporting.
For the rape category:\"Assaults and attempts to commit rape by force or threat of force are also included\"
Murder implies that the attack was fatal but: \"The UCR Program does not include the following situations in this offense classification: deaths caused by negligence, suicide, or accident; justifiable homicides; and attempts to murder or assaults to murder, which are scored as aggravated assaults. \"
So there you have it.
\"Just under half (49%) of all violent incidents reported to the BCS did not result in any injury to the victim. A similar proportion (47%) of all police recorded violence against the person in 2005/06 involved no injury.\"
So of all these \"violent crimes\" nearly 1/2 resulted in NO INJURY at all.
The US report may not include crime that that was not reported to the police. The US report may not class a crime where no injury was received as \"violent\". If this is the case then there is no way you can compare the two.
Nearly half the UK \"violent crime\" recorded resulted in no injury. Can the same be said for the US statistics?
As for the original thread topic I think I would find it fun to fire a gun in a safe situation. Would I want guns to be more available in the UK? No. [/quote
EDIT: @EvilDave, I have a \"jasper\" of my own, except he\'s a \"Lucky\" and very protective of \"his\" mommy and kids, and he\'s Big & Loud